Echelons Above Brigade Airspace Course (EABAC) Practice Exam

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• Tactical Actions are defined as what?
• Which stage immediately follows Master Air Attack Plan in the Joint Air Tasking Cycle?
• Which form should be used for a munitions flight path created by the fires warfighting function for scheduled and on-call fires?
• Which term describes the arrangement by the ACA of the components' and host-nation airspace control elements required to perform airspace control?
• What does BOC stand for in attack terminology?
• What term describes an area in which specific restrictions are imposed and into which fires that exceed those restrictions will not be delivered without coordination with the establishing headquarters?
• SUA/SSMS are organic to which units and are characterized as what type of weapons?
• Which construct provides a protective airspace area established to protect friendly aircraft from friendly surface fires?
• An arrangement by the ACA of components and HN airspace control element required to perform airspace control is called?
• Is activity that neutralizes, destroys, or degrades surface-based enemy air defenses by destructive and/or disruptive means?
• Which term is used to depict the most forward positions of friendly forces including covering and screening forces?
• Which term describes a three-dimensional area used to coordinate joint fires and airspace?
• How many terminal attack control types are used in this doctrine?
• What does ACA stand for?
• In air support for land forces, Close Air Support is best described as air action that supports ground forces in close proximity to the front line.
• Which term describes air action by aircraft against hostile targets that are in close proximity to friendly forces and that require detailed integration of each air mission with the fire and movement of those forces?
• Which term describes airspace holding patterns near friendly forces?
• Which term designates an airspace control subarea or sector?
• What are the three elements of the Joint Fires Support System?
• A temporary corridor of defined dimensions recommended for use by high-speed, fixed-wing aircraft that presents the minimum known hazards to low-flying aircraft transiting the combat zone is known as what?
• Which paragraph provides guidance on how to integrate airspace users in accordance with the commander’s intent, priorities, concept of operations, and risk guidance?
• National Strategic, Theater Strategic, Operational, and Tactical are the Levels of Warfare. Which term best describes this collection?
• Which term is the Standard Use Army Aircraft Flight Route typically located in corps rear areas and does not require airspace control authority approval?
• Which of the following are the components of the Joint Fires Support System?
• What are the two primary purposes of the Platoon Area Hazard PAH message?
• Which form is used for immediate air support requests via the internet protocol route network or JARN, and is employed at Battalion level and higher?
• Airspace designed for holding orbits and used by rotary and fixed-wing aircraft in close proximity to friendly forces.
• Which option is NOT a domain in the five-domain construct?
• What does NFA stand for in airspace control terminology?
• Which term describes the delegation of execution authority to subordinate commanders to perform their assigned mission and tasks?
• What is used by the JFACC to produce the ATO?
• What is the primary purpose of air interdiction missions?
• The Division Airspace Element is subordinate to which organization?
• Which terminal attack control type requires using other measures to mitigate risk when the target cannot be visually acquired?
• The Joint Task Force is constituted and designated to accomplish a specific mission by whom?
• Which facilitate attacks and include CFLs, FSCLs, FFAs, and kill boxes?
• Airspace altitude is typically expressed relative to which reference?
• Which arrangement by the ACA defines the components' and host-nation airspace control elements required to perform airspace control?
• Which element involves applying force to achieve objectives?
• Which statement correctly describes the Joint Operation Area (JOA) jurisdiction?
• Who is the normally weapons release authority for air interdiction missions?
• The BCD is digitally parsed into which system of record?
• Which AFATDS-generated geometry provides coordinates for missile trajectory from the firing unit to impact?
• The level of warfare where combatant commanders synchronize with unified action partners and employ all elements of national power to fulfill policy aims within the assigned theater is called what?
• What term describes a reasonable certainty that the object of attack is a legitimate military target in accordance with ROE?
• Which plan is the integration of active air defense design, passive defense measures, and the C2 system to provide a comprehensive approach to defending against threats, synchronized with air defense regions?
• The principle of unity of command is defined as what?
• What is the integrated collection of daily airspace requirements for an Army echelon called?
• The commander who receives assistance from another commander's force or capabilities and is responsible for integrating maneuver and fires within their designated area of operation is the what?
• What is the method of airspace control that relies on pre-established orders and uses airspace coordination areas and restricted operating zones to manage airspace without real-time communication?
• Which level translates national strategic objectives into actionable plans for a specific theater?
• What is the procedural method to separate fixed- and rotary-wing aircraft by altitude thresholds?
• Tactical Control (TACON) limits a commander's authority to the detailed direction and control of movements within which area?
• What term is used to describe the set including the desired point of impact, joint desired point of impact, desired mean point of impact, and nonlethal reference points?
• Which planning step must include communicating target information to the attack and delivery system?
• Which command is described as a command with broad continuing missions under a single commander, composed of significant assigned components of two or more MILDEPs, established and designated by the President through SecDef and with the advice and assistance of the CJCS?
• Which capability involves understanding the Operational Environment to enable the Joint Force to achieve objectives?
• Which Field Artillery weapon system are precision capable and organic to BCT and DIV commanders?
• What does MFP stand for?
• Which term describes the collection of all units and installations assigned to a combatant command from a single service, including support forces?
• What is the FAIO's role in the JAGIC?
• Who acts as the primary operational liaison between the JAGIC and the JAOC?
• Which capability safeguards forces and resources to enable the Joint Force to achieve objectives?
• Which terminal attack control type requires the ability to provide clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement and may rely on visual acquisition or real-time targeting information?
• Which term describes the overarching airspace management construct that can be formal or informal to facilitate efficient airspace use and safeguard friendly forces?
• Co-locating division airspace control working group members enhances capability for airspace control by allowing them to do what?
• Which term is a restricted air route established to prevent friendly aircraft from being fired upon by friendly forces?
• Who oversees fire mission execution and establishes or modifies FSCMs in JAGIC?
• The term Joint Force, used to describe a general organizational concept, is applied to which of the following?
• Which element is co-located with the Army's division fire support element and airspace element and may be configured as a JAGIC?
• Which directive defines the tactical objective and tactical task for air missions?
• Who are responsible for airspace management when a division delegates a portion of its area of operations to a subordinate brigade?
• What process does the JFACC use to produce the JAOP and supporting plans and orders (e.g. Airspace Control Plan, Area Air Defense Plan) to support the CCDR's (JFC's) campaign or contingency plan?
• Which attack method is used when the JTAC/FAC(A) determines that the desired effects can be created against the target with ordnance on a specified set of coordinates?
• Which control method relies on electronic identification and tracking of aircraft within airspace without relying on real-time communication?
• Which term describes the ongoing support to maintain operations, including logistics?
• Which term uses close air support and air interdiction mission types to support the execution of counterland operations?
• Which term refers to long-range air actions and interdiction tasks?
• The method used to task and disseminate projected sorties, capabilities, and/or forces to targets and specific missions is called?
• The normal suspense for submitting AIRSUPREQs for air missions is prior to Stage 3 (weaponeering and allocation) of the joint air tasking cycle. Which stage is this?
• Which term describes an area with restrictions that require coordination to deliver fires that exceed those restrictions?
• Through which system are preplanned AIRSUPREQs submitted for US Army operations?
• What is the planning cycle the JFACC uses to produce the Air Tasking Order (ATO)?
• Which term refers to the fundamental principles and standardized terminology guiding the employment of United States military forces in coordinated action toward a common objective?
• Which geometry defines the missile's trajectory coordinates from the fire unit to the warhead event?
• The Joint Force is a general term applied to which of the following?
• What is the purpose of Joint Doctrine?
• Which term refers to a route established below the coordination level to facilitate movement of Army aviation assets; normally located in the corps rear areas and does not require airspace control authority approval?
• Which entity produces the ATO using the Joint Air Tasking Cycle?
• Which term describes an airspace coordinating measure that uses altitude to separate users as they transition between different airspace control elements?
• The JAGIC's targeting officer normally supports which element and performs what action?
• Which concept focuses on ensuring that personnel, supplies, and equipment remain available to support operations?
• Which term is a line that delineates surface areas for the purpose of facilitating coordination and deconfliction of operations between adjacent units, formations, or areas?
• Who typically serves as the JAGIC chief in the Joint Air Ground Integration Center?
• Which element preserves and leverages information to enable the Joint Force to achieve objectives?
• Which term denotes a fixed point used for navigation, command and control, and communication?
• What term is defined as the detection, identification, and location of a target in sufficient detail to permit effective employment of capabilities?
• Which area is defined as the kill box variant that prohibits fires or their effects within its boundaries?
• In JAGIC, who commonly serves as the JAGIC chief?
• In relation to military plans and orders, what instructions are necessary for coordination and synchronization of the joint operation that apply to two or more elements of the command?
• Who serves as the net control for assigned frequencies and manages immediate air support requests, and is the primary recipient of immediate JTARs?
• Which maneuver control measure is a line that delineates surface areas for coordination and deconfliction between adjacent units?
• Does the ACA have authority to approve, disapprove or deny combat operations?
• The exercise of delegated authority over designated airspace and user through control procedures and coordination measures to maximize operational effectiveness is called?
• Which term is employed by commanders to facilitate the rapid engagement of targets and simultaneously provide safeguards for friendly forces?
• Which command is normally composed of forces from a single MILDEP that has a broad continuing mission, and there are currently no specified CCMDs designated?
• Which term is defined as a means of regulating force or warfighting functions, and are boundaries, special areas, or other unique markings related to an operational environment's geometry and necessary for planning and managing operations?
• Safeguard friendly forces and include ACAs, restrictive fire lines, no fire areas, and restrictive fire areas. This describes which category of measures?
• Which paragraph or Annex expresses appropriate command relationships to help subordinate and supporting commanders understand their roles in the operation?
• Which term denotes the arrangement that allows forces to operate together in a Joint Force?
• Which term describes air assets employed in a supporting role to operations, such as escort jamming for a strike package?
• Which four AFATDS geometries assist in planning for S2S fires?
• What is the purpose of an Airspace Control System (ACS)?
• Which term describes a temporary corridor established in the forward area to minimize risk to friendly aircraft from friendly air defenses or surface forces?
• Which term is used by land forces for control and coordination of military operations?
• What term defines a line established between converging friendly forces that prohibits fires, or effects of fires, across the line without coordination with the affected force?
• Which list constitutes the Joint Functions?
• Which order provides the details of the approved requests for coordination measures such as ACMs, ADMs, and FSCMs?
• Which capability ensures logistical and operational support enables the Joint Force to achieve objectives?
• Which essential capability directs forces and operations to enable the Joint Force to achieve objectives?
• What is the method of airspace control that relies on positive identification, tracking, and electronic communication with aircraft within an airspace?
• What term describes an air defense measure established around an air base and limited to the engagement envelope of short-range air defense weapons?
• What is the term for a clear and concise expression of the purpose, end state, and risk in military plans and orders?
• What best describes the Unit Airspace Plan?
• What is the plan for a connected series of Joint Air Operations to achieve the joint force commander's objectives within a given time and joint operational area?
• Which of the following describes a coordinated air and ground fires effort?
• Which term refers to the authority over assigned or attached forces that is made available for tasking but limited to the detailed direction and control of movements within the Operational Area necessary to accomplish the mission?
• Which statement best distinguishes Combat Identification from Positive Target ID?
• At which level are forces tasked to plan and execute battles and engagements to achieve military objectives, focusing on immediate objectives?
• When requesting on-call air mission, Army unit should clearly identify which two items (found in the AOD) the air mission will support?
• Which capability positions forces effectively to enable the Joint Force to achieve objectives?
• Which AIRSUPREQ type is described as being submitted after the ATO has been published and is supported with on-call air missions or by redirecting scheduled missions already on the ATO?
• Which construct includes Land, Maritime, Cyberspace, Space, and Air?
• Which role is responsible for the ASOC airspace C2 function and coordinates ACMs and FSCMs to optimize aircraft fires and airspace integration?
• Which term describes the type of Fire Support Coordination Measures used to integrate fires with airspace control and prevent fratricide?
• Effective Fires are synchronized with what?
• What type of AIRSUPREQ is submitted in time to be included in planning stages, normally 72 hours prior to execution?
• Which term designates a kill box in which fires or their effects are prohibited within the zone?
• Which level of warfare is primarily concerned with the execution of campaigns and major operations within a theater?
• Which level of warfare plans, conducts, and sustains campaigns and operations to achieve operational objectives that support strategic objectives, linking tactical actions to strategic objectives?
• Which term marks the outer limit of a deployment area for ground forces to coordinate fire and maneuver?
• Which term denotes aircraft used to provide close air support and air interdiction in support of counterland operations?
• Which term is a three dimensional area used to facilitate the integration of joint fires and airspace (not a mission)?
• Which term is listed as the final item in the material?
• Which level focuses on broad strategic aims at the national level?
• What is the procedural method to separate fixed- and rotary-wing aircraft by determining an altitude below which fixed-wing aircraft normally will not fly?
• What is the term for the process of attaining an accurate characterization of detected objects in the operational environment to support an engagement decision?
• Which term describes the area into which any weapon may fire without additional coordination with the establishing headquarters?
• Which term refers to the unit tasked with protecting high-value airborne assets through dedicated fighter escort?
• JAOP stands for Joint Air Operations Plan.
• What term is the airspace within which engagement responsibility rests with low to medium altitude surface-to-air missiles?
• Which concept describes the purpose of reducing the likelihood of unintended engagements with civil and neutral aircraft while achieving mission objectives?
• The division's tactical airspace picture is synchronized through links established predominantly with which sensors?
• What term describes the authority to perform those functions of command over subordinate forces involving organizing and employing commands and forces, assigning tasks, designating objectives, and giving authoritative direction necessary to accomplish the mission?
• Which term provides a picture of movement and maneuver of forces?
• The Air Operations Directive (AOD) contains which critical elements for air missions?
• What plan establishes procedures for the airspace control system in the operational area and serves as guidance for airspace control?
• Which term describes air power dedicated to destroying or degrading enemy air defenses to enable other operations?
• Which document provides details of approved airspace coordination measures such as ACMs, ADMs, and FSCMs?
• What airspace clearance TTP minimizes the amount of airspace consumed?
• Which term is associated with airspace designed for unmanned aircraft operations?
• The Execution Paragraph is included in orders/plans of maneuver at which level?
• What is the Army's approach to mission command?
• Used to provide JFACC guidance for the use of joint air capabilities for a specified period during planning and execution of the ATO.
• Which Appendix and Annex are designated for Airspace in Operations?
• FLOT stands for what?
• Which kill box facilitates the attack of surface targets with subsurface-to-surface, surface-to-surface, and air-to-surface munitions?
• Which command is established to conduct operations when forces from two or more services must operate in the same physical domain or accomplish a distinct aspect of the assigned mission?
• Which term refers to a general term for top-level commands such as JFCs that can be a Combatant Commander, Subordinate Unified Commander, or Joint Task Force Commander?
• Which term refers to a temporary corridor that presents the minimum known hazards to low-flying aircraft transiting the combat zone?
• Which term broadly describes the exercise of authority and direction of forces to accomplish a mission?
• ACA Criteria for Delegating Army-Assigned Airspace states that the ACA will recognize it as an airspace control element of the ACS and assign it a volume of airspace within which area?
• Which message is used to warn flight operations and to gain airspace clearance and is generated when a guided munitions fire mission is processed?
• Which plan is the integration of active air defense design, passive defense measures, and the C2 system to defend against threats, synchronized with air defense regions?
• Which process is used by an air component commander for planning operations?
• Which term refers to two types of Airspace Coordination Areas used to facilitate efficient airspace use?
• Which is one of the most important control measures a commander uses to identify the Supported commander?
• The five elements of the planning format used for plans and orders include which of the following?
• Who designates Unified CCMDs?
• Which term corresponds to the function of providing joint fires tasks such as strategic attack, countering air and missile threats (including SEAD and offensive counterair), and interdiction?
• ACAs are included in which category of measures?
• Which command is defined as consisting of the Service component commander and all Service forces under that command?
• Who determines target attack methods within JAGIC?
• Which doctrine outlines Service capabilities, guides the application of Service forces and presents the Service's view of the best way to organize and employ Service forces to accomplish joint force commander objectives?
• Which team works with joint airspace planners to ensure airspace is planned for each air mission?
• In USMTF 2004, how many usages are defined?
• Who is responsible for receiving and analyzing the air tasking order (ATO) to identify and track air missions tasked to support ground forces?
• How does the US Army present forces to the Joint Force?
• A major operation is best described as which of the following?
• Which statement captures the difference between OPCON and TACON?
• What is the authority to control the maneuver of and grant weapons release clearance to attacking aircraft?
• A Joint Operation Area (JOA) is the area defined by a combatant commander or subordinate unified commander in which a Joint Force Commander conducts military operations to accomplish a specific mission?
• Which stage follows Master Air Attack Plan?
• Mission Command emphasizes empowering subordinate decision-making to achieve what primary objective?
• What is the primary purpose of the Tactical Level of Warfare?
• What term represents the Kill Box goals intended to reduce coordination requirements, maximize flexibility, and prevent friendly fire?
• The activity comprising related military operations intended to achieve strategic and operational objectives within an Operational Area is what?
• What are the types of Army Brigade Combat Team (BCT)?
• Who is responsible for developing the Joint Air Operations Plan (JAOP)?
• Who is responsible for developing the Joint Air Operations Plan (JAOP)?
• Which entity provides clearance for multiple attacks within a single engagement during terminal attack control?
• Which term describes the exercise of authority and direction by a properly designated commander over assigned and attached forces in the accomplishment of the mission?
• Who is always the FSCOORD for the theater?
• What attachment is used in planning documents to describe the details of airspace control within an operation?
• Which command consists of the Service component commander and all those Service forces under that command, including the support forces that have been assigned to a combatant command or further assigned to a subordinate unified command or joint task force?
• In the joint air tasking cycle, nominations for AIRSUPREQs are due before which stage?
• What term is the airspace within which the responsibility for engaging air threats rests with high-altitude surface-to-air missiles?
• In the AFATDS geometry set, which term completes the quartet PAA, PAH, and TAH?
• Which document details how the joint air effort supports the JFC's operation or campaign plan?
• Which measures are employed to facilitate the efficient use of airspace and provide safeguards for friendly forces?
• Which form is used to schedule munitions flight paths for on-call and scheduled fires?
• Which term denotes the line that delineates surface areas for coordination and deconfliction between adjacent units, formations, or areas?
• Which measures are used by commanders to facilitate rapid engagement of targets while safeguarding friendly forces?
• A campaign is defined as what?
• Which level is primarily concerned with battles and engagements on the ground?
• Which term describes air operations to perform interdiction at such distances from friendly forces that detailed integration of each air mission with the fire and movement of friendly forces is not required?
• When requesting air missions, Army units should clearly identify which two items from the AOD that the air mission will support?
• How many types of products are produced by the six stages of the Joint Air Tasking Cycle?
• What are the two types of Airspace Coordination Areas?
• Who is responsible for military-directed airspace control in a Joint Operations Area (JOA)?
• Which stage is the Master Air Attack Plan in the Joint Air Tasking Cycle?
• Implementing JAGIC TTP enhances the division's airspace control by co-locating members of which group?
• Which capability is primarily responsible for directing forces and operations?
• Which term facilitates the expeditious engagement of targets of opportunity beyond the coordinating measure and applies to all fires?
• The commander who provides and coordinates the requested assistance to another commander is the what?
• Which term is used to separate users by altitude as they transition between different airspace control elements?
• Which document is produced by the Joint Air Tasking Cycle to direct air operations?
• Which plan, alongside the JAOP, specifically addresses air defense for a CCDR's campaign?
• Unified Action is defined as what?
• What term describes the airspace where engagement is conducted by short-range air defense weapons?
• In the Joint Fires Support System, which element is primarily responsible for locating targets?
• What does BOT stand for in attack terminology?
• Which role is the theater's FSCOORD and coordinates the fires across the theater?
• Which geometry message is automatically created by AFATDS for guided munitions and describes the aircraft danger area around the launcher selected to fire?
• The Airspace Control Area (ACA) assigns a volume of airspace to which of the following?
• The Joint Force Commander (JFC) is responsible for military-directed airspace control in which area?
• Which term is described as the line beyond which conventional surface fire support means may fire at any time within the boundaries of the establishing HQ?
• Which AIRSUPREQ type is used for urgent requests, submitted after the ATO has been published and typically relies on on-call assets?
• Which terminal attack control type requires visually acquiring both the target and the attacking aircraft during the terminal phase?
• Joint Operations are defined as which of the following?
• What term refers to the overall integration framework that links command, acquisition, and delivery systems for fires?
• Airspace reserved for specific activities in which operations of one or more airspace users is restricted
• Which field manual provides airspace appendix examples and is a good starting point for identifying information in an airspace appendix?
• Operational Control (OPCON) is the authority over subordinate forces that permits which of the following?
• Which doctrine is defined as an agreed upon fundamental principle that guides the employment of force of two or more nations in coordinated action toward a common objective?
• Which doctrinal reference provides an example of an Airspace Appendix format?
• Mortars are assigned an area to deliver which type of fires?
• Who handles the procedural control of aircraft in division-assigned airspace, accepts hand-offs, and maintains situational awareness on ASOC-controlled aircraft?
• Which construct is a three-dimensional block of airspace in a target area, established by the appropriate commander, in which friendly aircraft are reasonably safe from friendly surface fires?
• Which level concerns campaigns and major operations at the theater level?
• Which term corresponds to a specific designated area into which any weapon system may fire without additional coordination with the establishing headquarters?
• Which concept provides the framework for ground force operations?
• In the Joint Air Tasking Cycle, which is the third stage?
• Which kill box is an area designated by the appropriate commander into which fires or their effects are prohibited?
• What concept gives the commander responsibility and authority for planning, directing, and coordinating a military operation?
• The Joint Functions are: Command and control, information, intelligence, fires, movement and maneuver, protection, and sustainment. Which statement best describes them?
• Which attack type uses coordinates to designate the attack point?
• The level that links tactical actions to strategic objectives and coordinates efforts across the force is which?
• Which term refers to airspace created specifically for unmanned aircraft operations?
• What term describes the combined three dimensions: Physical, Information, and Human?
• What is the standard designation for use with fixed-wing and rotary-wing aircraft in close air support?
• At which level of warfare does the U.S. government formulate policy goals and synchronize action across government and partners to align military efforts with national interests and long-term goals?
• An Operational Area (OA) is best described as what?
• Which terminal attack control type requires that the intended target or mark be tallied/CONTACT/CAPTURED by the aircrew?
• AIRCOR is used to route aviation combat elements between areas such as forward arming and refueling points, holding areas, and battle positions. Which option correctly names AIRCOR?
• In relation to military plans and orders, what is a short sentence or paragraph that describes the organization's essential task(s), purpose, and action containing the elements of who, what, when, where, and why?
• Who is the senior fires staff officer at echelons above corps who advises the commander on the best use of available fire resources and provides input to necessary orders?
• Which document is a supporting plan produced alongside the JAOP to address airspace control and air defense planning?
• JAOP stands for which?
• Which term is described as centralized command, defined as delegating C2 authorities to subordinate commanders and establishing decision-making processes and protocols?
• Which Field Manual is associated with Airspace Control in this context?
• Which organization is responsible for all aspects of Army airspace control in support of division operations?
• Which is the sixth stage of the Joint Air Tasking Cycle?
• Which document clearly articulates the ARFOR commander's requests for air operations support to complement the JFC's end state?
• What is the basic format for plan, orders, and their attachments including the Airspace appendix?
• The Airspace Control Subarea (ACSS) is defined as a subset of which larger area?
• The term for the organization and geographic concept where campaigns are planned within a defined operational space is what?
• In USMTF 2004, the terms '8 Types' and '112 Usages' refer to what?
• Which term governs the engagement of targets of opportunity beyond the coordinating measures?
• Which term is a point defined and used for navigation, command and control, and communication?
• Operational Area stands for?
• What are the mission types closely associated with land operations?
• Who serves as the supported commander's FSCOORD and speaks for the commander on all matters pertaining to fire support?
• Who is the weapons release authority for close air support missions within a ground force AO (Area of Operations)?
• Provides dedicated protection sorties by air-to-air capable fighters in support of other offensive air and air support operations over enemy territory or in a defensive counter air role to protect aircraft, such as high value airborne assets.